Let \(\Gamma = \left ( \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}\right )\) be an ordered basis for \(\mathbb{R}^2\). For which of the following do we have \([\operatorname{id}]_\Gamma^\Omega = I_2\)?
\( \Omega = \left ( \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}\right )\)
\( \Omega = \left ( \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}\right )\)
\( \Omega = \left ( \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}, \begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}\right )\)